![[personal profile]](https://www.dreamwidth.org/img/silk/identity/user.png){kind=small}
(no subject)
Jun. 21st, 2009 11:05 amWhat is "false equivalentizing"? I put it in a Google search and what came back were your journal and a half-dozen academic journals with titles like, "Selecting precision characteristics for diagnostic machines". All the results were on one page. It was crazy. But so, is it like so-called separate but equal doctrines?
When I use the term, I am usually referring to things like, "Judge Sotomayor belonging to an all-women club is just as discriminatory as a male judge belonging to an all-male club." That is a false equivalency; it ignores the power differentials embedded in each situation. They are not analogous. This type of thing, as you know, pops up all the damn time whenever discussions of race, class, gender, etc. come up. Even moreso lately, it seems to me. See also any use of the term "reverse racism."
When I use the term, I am usually referring to things like, "Judge Sotomayor belonging to an all-women club is just as discriminatory as a male judge belonging to an all-male club." That is a false equivalency; it ignores the power differentials embedded in each situation. They are not analogous. This type of thing, as you know, pops up all the damn time whenever discussions of race, class, gender, etc. come up. Even moreso lately, it seems to me. See also any use of the term "reverse racism."
